Shouldn't there be a cap on the % of the leverage from a buyout they can shift onto the entity being purchased?
Wouldn't it be in the interest of the greater economy (customers/employees) for PE firms to have skin in the game when they purchase companies?
Why are private equity firms allowed to transfer the debt incurred to purchase a company onto the books of the purchased company?
byu/wabladoobz inAskEconomics
Posted by wabladoobz