To what extent are modern market structures still a reflection of the idea that there is truly not enough to go around? To what extent is economic inequality the result of a physical reality wherein there are simply not enough resources to account for the needs of the populace, and to what extent is it the result of entrenched political systems and the manner in which we structure society? How would we even know if we reached a point of technological advancement where we could achieve post-scarcity so long as said technological advancements are conceptualized in market terms?
How scarce are resources really?
byu/jacobsondrew inAskEconomics
Posted by jacobsondrew