Wondering if this is legal

Hi everyone.

A friend of mine has been renting a house from a family member for almost two decades. There’s nothing on paper for this “lease”. It’s all just a verbal agreement.

The owner has decided to put the house up for sale. The first time a contract fell through, and now after half a year and dropping the price massively, a few days ago, there is another contract pending. He has failed to tell my friend about either, we found out by looking online at. My friend didn’t even know the owner was putting the house up for sale. My friend came home one day to for sale signs on the property. Scummy move.

Anyway, given the house is occupied, and my friend has no savings and no way to get out in 30 days if told to, the owner also does not have the house insured in any way shape or form.

He is selling the house as is and claims the value is in the land. Which is funny because the real estate agent forgot to even list photos of said land.

I’m wondering if this is even legal and I honestly don’t know if the real estate agent is aware someone is living there, and there’s nothing insured.

Is there anything that could be done to maybe delay this process or stop it? Wouldn’t this be like a squatters rights situation at this point since there is no formal lease? This is in New Jersey.