I'm a lay person, please be generous.
    I’ve been reading twitter discourse on Joseph Davis (2005), who reconstructs U.S. business cycles using an industrial production series and finds that pre-WWI recessions were less frequent and expansions longer than the traditional NBER chronology suggests.
    https://www.nber.org/papers/w11157

    This seems to reduce the apparent degree of post-WWII “stabilization.”

    This was a bit surprising to be so I was left wondering:
    What is the current mainstream consensus on how post-WWII changes in monetary policy and central banking have affected the U.S. business cycle/ economy?

    If pre-WWI recessions were less frequent than NBER data suggests (Davis 2005), what did the Fed actually change about the business cycle?
    byu/olinoreddit inAskEconomics



    Posted by olinoreddit

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