It's one of those things that every social ill in existence is consistently pinned on. Recently I read that it's an actual doctrine outlined by Milton Friedman. But was it ever different pre-Friedman? Isn't that the most obvious course of action if you own capital? And does it even make sense for a company not to follow that doctrine?

    Please try to be clear, I'm a total layman!

    Are there any real reasons for shareholder primacy to be controversial?
    byu/stdsort inAskEconomics



    Posted by stdsort

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