I’m a novelist, not an economist, and I’ve been studying heterodox economics, during this I’ve come to the conclusion that the minting of money determines the value of the market….An example of this would be when we were on the gold standard, gold became the think that people wanted in a society because it meant a stronger dollar until they reached a bottle neck in production and then went to fiat…And fiat is backed by credit so currently we are printing money to back credit…so my question is if we made the production of currency to a certain thing, like say if money was minted by performing ecology restoration acts then the minted money is backed by ecology meaning our consent is towards making more ecology repair for money printing because it increased the supply which is increasing in demand because production is limited by an act…would this work or not?
Currency, is it used for manufacturing consent?
byu/SmokeIntelligent119 inAskEconomics
Posted by SmokeIntelligent119