How does the global wealth distribution mechanism across the world works?

Im not versed in economy at all and i've been trying to find information in regard of certain topics but the information ive found is too conflictive. I hope you could educate me or point me in the right direction. I don't know if my premises are fully correct because again its difficult to gather data at least to me

1. What would happen if money stopped being created where would it end up?
2. What would happen if every country was developed ? would it turn into some pseudo communism where the role of each country and its population will be dictated by its resources?

3 In almost all countries i checked the distribution of wealth is virtually the same the difference between having a large middle class or not is only a few % of the total wealth being distributed down. Some countries have heavy social policies that aleviate the costs wich reduces the treshold for being considered middle class or have a significnalty low population given their economy volume or have on average higher education jobs in which they export services and then most of the networth is usually owned assets like houses. Slovakia for example is one of the less unequal countries but if you take the houses out its more or less goes back to the average distribution. In most countries the bottom 50% get between 2-10% of all wealth some even have negative cause they become indebted . Is this correct?

3a Can the distribution of wealth in the world drastically change over time ? I understand that as economies develop and grow the poor will have a better lifestyle someone poor in the us is going to be way better off than in the rest of the world however most of the difference seems to be the access to consumer goods and access to better infrastructure unless there are social policies that again cover part of the burden. Is it necessary for a country to be wealthy that another is less?

4 in virtually every country the average person seems to be getting priced out of buying a home . In a lot of countries you need to be in the top 25-30% earners to qualify for a mortage for house in the lower end, the prices of housing in the outskirt of cities seems to also grow at an alarming rate too and then in a lot of countries there are a lot of foreing buyers which makes thing worse. why does it seem to be a phenomenon in almost all countries on earth at the same time?

5 in most countries maintaining a family of 4 seems to put you again in the top % of households income. in first of countries is more possible but you would need to reduce your quality of life and in most cases you wouldn't qualify for a mortage (assuming you could even afford the downpayment). It also seems the wages in most middle tier countries only allow you to have a decent lifestyle if you share costs primarly rent . A single median income alone might be very tight. why again happens in most of the planet at the same time?

6 in all exchanges one part has to profit or else there would be no reason for the transaction does this mean there are countries that are guranteed to lose money or hit a lifestyle cap as theres a limit to how many goods and services a country can afford to import?

7 is there a hard cap on how much wealthy the average population of a country can become? i found that if wages get too high relative to the productivity you would become uncompetitive and if wages specially of lower tier jobs raise too much the price index would just adjust.

8 is the appreciation in value of tangible assets across the world a natural ocurring phenomenon or a learned behaviour?