Do you think Baumol’s effect is sometimes overgeneralized or overused, and if so, does that reflect any underlying political assumptions?

Do you think Baumol’s effect is sometimes overgeneralized or overused, and if so, does that reflect any underlying political assumptions?

Do you think Baumol’s effect is sometimes overgeneralized or overused, and if so, does that reflect any underlying political assumptions?
byu/MurdochMaxwell inAskEconomics

Posted by MurdochMaxwell