For the period commonly referred to as the Great Divergence (roughly 1500–1850), are there historical estimates of government taxation or revenue expressed as a share of GDP in broad regional terms (for example Europe versus East Asia), or for individual countries? When does any divergence in fiscal capacity relative to GDP appear to emerge, and is there evidence that differences in tax share preceded or accompanied industrialization?
What share of GDP was typically taxed during the Great Divergence in Europe vs East Asia?
byu/Kitchen-Jicama8715 inAskEconomics
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