In a country with such a direct democracy, such a low house ownership rate(35%) and expensive housing, wouldnt you expect people to try for referendums with more property tax or land value taxes?
    Not saying it should or shouldnt be this way, just dont understand how it hasnt happend yet?

    Not sure if this is the right place to ask, dont know where else

    In Switzerland, why haven't there been more successful referendums to try to force lower house prices?
    byu/_Atra-hasis_ inAskEconomics



    Posted by _Atra-hasis_

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