Isn't Mokyr's a theory of why it happened in western europe and Allen's a theory of why it happened in Britain specifically? Does the prevalence of the competitor framing imply that the respective theories perform pretty decently as explanations of why it happened in western Europe and Britain?
Why are Joel Mokyr and Robert Allen's theories of the Industrial revolution seen as competitors?
byu/rustyschenckholder inAskEconomics
Posted by rustyschenckholder