From my understanding in steps with examples of x values:

    Banks issued a lot of loans which did not have any serious prerequisites, whilst at the same time, individuals were being encouraged to become homeowners. These loans had a small interest too to be repaid.

    >Bank loans out $100k to a borrower and hence creating household debt. Borrower will repay the bank at 1% simple interest yearly over 20 years. Total repayment is $120k

    The banks then bundle these loans and sell them to investors. Due to them being grouped, investors believed that most of them would pay even if a few defaulted. It also received an AAA rating to boost confidence.

    Investors bought these loans at a slightly higher price compared to what the banks paid out in loans.

    >Investors pay $550k for a group of 5 loans as it essentially guarantees them $50k due to huge confidence in the mortgage market, paid at a steady rate safely.

    (Over here, I don’t understand how they were able to sell the loans for even higher due to housing trends typically going upwards since the sale had already been made)

    When a lot of people couldn’t repay during an economic downturn, those who bet on the housing market faced the costs.

    Im trying to understand the 2008 Financial Crisis, does this make sense?
    byu/EdgyBlade inAskEconomics



    Posted by EdgyBlade

    Leave A Reply
    Share via