Related questions: is workplace autonomy something that is already available on the market, but that workers consistently bargain away in favor of higher wages? Does workplace autonomy necessarily produce inefficiencies due to misaligned incentives? Is there a single defined, quantifiable way that economists measure workplace autonomy?
Unions, codetermination, and market socialism all aim to increase the power of the worker within the workplace. What does economics say about this goal and how can it be pursued with minimal negative side effects?
byu/SmoothieNatns inAskEconomics
Posted by SmoothieNatns
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Economics can’t answer normative questions.
Economics can say that the desired outcome of production is consumption (either now or in the future) and thus the interests of consumers are key. Economics can say that the poorest people in society disproportionately live in households where no one is earning a market income, frequently ones where no one can, due to reasons like ill-health or caretaking responsibilities. These people are not helped by improved working conditions unless they improve productivity. And improved productivity also benefits workers generally, in their lives as consumers (plus everyone who consumes, which is everybody).
Economics can also say that in countries like the USA, many workers also are capital owners through pension funds, individual retirement accounts and the like.
But economics can’t say what the right trade off is on worker power versus consumer well-being.